From mboxrd@z Thu Jan 1 00:00:00 1970 From: tgh Subject: Re: question about the meaning of memory auto-translate and paravirtual and no pseudophysical overlay Date: Mon, 09 Apr 2007 20:59:16 +0800 Message-ID: <461A38A4.80208@ncic.ac.cn> References: <991B62EB36934C4EBD5B605518A724764C421E@pdsmsx404.ccr.corp.intel.com> <4611C2F7.9060800@ncic.ac.cn> <46145C9C.7060009@ncic.ac.cn> <1175962992.12465.11.camel@trevor> Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=GB2312 Content-Transfer-Encoding: quoted-printable Return-path: In-Reply-To: <1175962992.12465.11.camel@trevor> List-Unsubscribe: , List-Post: List-Help: List-Subscribe: , Sender: xen-devel-bounces@lists.xensource.com Errors-To: xen-devel-bounces@lists.xensource.com To: Mark Williamson Cc: xen-devel@lists.xensource.com List-Id: xen-devel@lists.xenproject.org Thank you for your reply Mark Williamson =D0=B4=B5=C0: > This would be a guest that didn't use the abstraction of pseudophysical > addresses at all; it would just use virtual and (real) machine > addresses. I'm not sure if there are any guests that operate in this > way... Certainly the major heavyweight OSes all use this technique whe= n > paravirtualised. > > =20 what is the major heavyweight OSes? and how does it paravirtualise? if there is no pseudophysical addresses,a physical host computer could only paravirtualise one VM,is it right? Thank you in advance > > =20