From mboxrd@z Thu Jan  1 00:00:00 1970
From: martinvz <martin.von.zweigbergk@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: Difference between pull --rebase and fetch+rebase
Date: Thu, 7 Jan 2010 10:44:24 -0800 (PST)
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References: <27059158.post@talk.nabble.com> <adf1fd3d1001070800k6fa501fej39b84f849b7e5b50@mail.gmail.com>
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Thanks for your post, Santi. I can not share my repository since it is =
a
project at work. I was troubleshooting a bit myself and found the follo=
wing
section in git-pull.sh:

	oldremoteref=3D"$(git rev-parse -q --verify "$remoteref")" &&
	for reflog in $(git rev-list -g $remoteref 2>/dev/null)
	do
		if test "$reflog" =3D "$(git merge-base $reflog $curr_branch)"
		then
			oldremoteref=3D"$reflog"
			break
		fi
	done

Why is it that reflog entries are allowed to override the remote refere=
nce?


Thanks,
Martin



Santi B=C3=A9jar-2 wrote:
>=20
> On Thu, Jan 7, 2010 at 1:23 PM, martinvz
> <martin.von.zweigbergk@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>> I have a branch configured to track a remote branch by rebasing. I
>> excepted
>> that "git pull" would therefore be equivalent to fetching from the r=
emote
>> repository followed by rebasing the remote branch, but it isn't. Whe=
n
>> doing
>> "git rebase <remote>/<branch>", it applies only the commits after th=
e
>> merge
>> base. When doing "git pull", it tries to apply two more commits (the=
 two
>> commits preceding the merge base). Why is this?
>>
>> I get the same result even if I do "git pull --rebase <remote> <bran=
ch>",
>> it
>> doesn't seem to have anything to do with incorrect configuration of =
the
>> branch.
>=20
> Yes, both should do the same (at least when upstream is not rebased).
> Can you provide a test case or instructions to reproduce the behavior=
?
>=20
> Thanks,
> Santi
> --
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>=20
>=20

--=20
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