Re: PCI init issues

Ron Arts
2003-03-04T19:26:51Z

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Linus Torvalds wrote:
> On Tue, 4 Mar 2003, Ivan Kokshaysky wrote:
>
>>Indeed, looks like only pin 0 (INT_A of that card) is connected. :-(
>
>
> Well, I'd say it looks like the MP table _claims_ that only pin0 is
> connected. Remember: the claim was that this machine worked on WinXP.
>

Well, I submitted the dmseg and messages because Jamal requested
it (same motherboard, same 4-port card and same strange IRQ
assignments), but this particular machine is not tested with XP,
and I don't think we have that.
I think we still have a disk with Win2000 on it. Would that help?

Should have to wait until tomorrow though, I'm on Central European Time,
and the machine is located elsewhere.

Ron

> So there are at least two potential reasons for that:
>
> - The MP table is simply wrong, and WinXP gets the routing information
> from somewhere else (ie most likely ACPI)
>
> - The MP table is right, and only pin0 is connected, and WinXP only uses
> pin0 (ie it puts the card in some state where all irqs are shared
> across all of the four tulip chips).
>
> Maybe somebody can come up with other schenarios.
>
> It would be interesting to hear what "Device Manager" (or whatever it is
> called) unde WinXP claims the interrupts are on this machine... Are they
> all on irq 48 on XP too? Or has XP gotten magic knowledge somewhere
> (ACPI?) and they are on different irq's?
>
> Linus

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